1 MCQs in Anatomy for NEET PG
A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presents with acute flank pain and hematuria. CT angiography shows a wedge-shaped area of non-perfusion in the upper pole of the right kidney. The structure marked **B** in the diagram is responsible for blood supply to this region. Which of the following best explains why infarction in this distribution is anatomically possible?
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