27 MCQs in Anesthesia for NEET PG
A 68-year-old woman with a history of severe aortic stenosis (valve area 0.8 cm²), left ventricular hypertrophy, and chronic kidney disease (eGFR 35 mL/min/1.73m²) is scheduled for urgent femoral artery angiography. She is on digoxin, furosemide, and lisinopril. Her current BP is 160/95 mmHg, HR 88/min, and she has signs of pulmonary edema. She is ASA IV. Which induction agent is most appropriate for this high-risk patient?
A 58-year-old man with a 15-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus (HbA1c 8.2%) and hypertension (on amlodipine 5 mg daily, BP 138/86 mmHg) presents for elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He denies chest pain, dyspnea, or palpitations. His exercise tolerance is good—he walks 3 km daily without symptoms. Physical examination reveals no cardiac murmurs, normal lung auscultation, and no peripheral edema. ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with no ST changes. What is his ASA Physical Status classification?
Regarding ASA Physical Status Classification, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
A 58-year-old man with a history of stable angina, well-controlled hypertension, and mild chronic kidney disease (eGFR 45 mL/min/1.73m²) is scheduled for elective hernia repair. Regarding his ASA Physical Status classification, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
A 52-year-old man with a 10-year history of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus and diabetic nephropathy (creatinine 2.8 mg/dL) presents for elective hernia repair. His blood glucose is well-controlled, and he has no symptoms of angina or dyspnea. Which feature best distinguishes his ASA class from that of a 52-year-old with well-controlled hypertension on a single antihypertensive agent?
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