16 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 38-year-old woman presents with progressive weight gain, proximal muscle weakness, easy bruising, and amenorrhea for 8 months. Clinical examination reveals central obesity, purple striae, and hypertension (160/100 mmHg). You suspect Cushing syndrome. Which investigation is the best initial screening test?
A 52-year-old man with confirmed hypercortisolism (elevated 24-hour UFC and abnormal LDDST) is being investigated for the cause of Cushing syndrome. His ACTH level is 8 pg/mL (normal 10–46 pg/mL). Which is the most appropriate next investigation to localize the source?
A 52-year-old man with ACTH-independent Cushing syndrome due to a 4 cm adrenocortical carcinoma is deemed unresectable by the surgical team. Medical therapy is initiated for long-term cortisol suppression. Which drug is the first-line choice for this indication?
A 52-year-old woman with a 6-month history of progressive proximal muscle weakness, hypertension, and hirsutism is found to have elevated 24-hour urinary free cortisol and suppressed ACTH. Imaging reveals a 2 cm left adrenal mass. Which single feature best distinguishes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)-independent Cushing syndrome from ACTH-dependent Cushing syndrome in this patient?
A 38-year-old woman presents with progressive proximal muscle weakness, easy bruising, and amenorrhea for 6 months. Clinical examination reveals central obesity, purple striae, and hypertension (160/95 mmHg). Laboratory investigations show elevated 24-hour urinary free cortisol and suppressed ACTH. Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)-independent Cushing syndrome?
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