Human Papillomavirus

A 32-year-old HIV-positive man (CD4 count 150 cells/μL) presents with extensive, treatment-resistant genital warts that have failed topical podophyllotoxin and cryotherapy over 6 months. Which agent is most appropriate as the next-line therapy?

A 35-year-old woman from Mumbai undergoes routine cervical screening and is found to have HPV-16 positive, high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) on liquid-based cytology. Colposcopy with directed biopsy confirms cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 2 (CIN 2). She is otherwise healthy with no immunosuppression. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 28-year-old woman presents with persistent cervical cytology showing atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). She is HPV-positive on reflex testing. What is the most appropriate next investigation to determine the need for colposcopy?

A 35-year-old man presents with a 2-month history of a painless, indurated lesion on the glans penis. Clinical examination reveals a verrucous, hyperkeratotic growth. HPV infection is suspected. Which investigation is most specific for confirming HPV infection and determining oncogenic potential?

A 28-year-old woman from Delhi presents with multiple genital warts of 6 months duration. She is asymptomatic and has no history of abnormal Pap smears. On examination, she has visible condylomata acuminata on the vulva. What is the most appropriate next step in management?