17 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 35-year-old man with chronic headaches and gradual progressive vision loss over 3 months presents with bilateral disc swelling. Fundoscopy shows pale, elevated optic discs with blurred margins, venous obscuration at the disc, and retinal folds (Paton's lines). Visual acuity is normal. What is the most common cause of papilloedema in this patient?
The fundus photograph shown above demonstrates features consistent with which of the following conditions?
A 28-year-old woman presents with acute vision loss in the left eye over 48 hours, associated with periocular pain on eye movements. On examination, visual acuity is 6/36 in the affected eye, pupil is relatively afferent, and fundoscopy reveals hyperaemia and blurring of the optic disc margins with peripapillary flame haemorrhages. Intraocular pressure is normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
In papillitis, which of the following findings is MOST specific for optic nerve inflammation rather than raised intracranial pressure?
Which of the following findings is characteristic of papilloedema but NOT seen in papillitis?
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