Visual Field Defects

A 58-year-old man presents with progressive loss of vision in the superior temporal quadrant of both eyes. On examination, he has normal visual acuity and intraocular pressures of 24 mmHg bilaterally. Fundoscopy reveals early optic disc cupping. Which investigation is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis and establish baseline parameters for monitoring disease progression?

A 68-year-old woman with diabetes and hypertension undergoes automated perimetry showing a superior arcuate scotoma in the right eye. Which of the following is NOT consistent with this finding?

A 38-year-old woman from Mumbai presents with sudden onset of a right homonymous hemianopia discovered incidentally on routine eye testing. She denies any headache, weakness, or sensory loss. Neurologic examination is otherwise normal. Visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and fundoscopy is normal bilaterally. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of giant cell arteritis presents with sudden loss of vision in the right eye. Examination reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect and a pale, atrophic optic disc with no swelling. Which finding best distinguishes this presentation of arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (A-AION) from non-arteritic AION (NA-AION)?

A 72-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with sudden-onset homonymous hemianopia affecting the right visual field. MRI brain shows an acute infarct in the left occipital lobe. Which investigation is most appropriate to localize the lesion within the visual pathway and differentiate occipital from retrogeniculate pathology?