14 MCQs in Orthopedics for NEET PG
A 6-week-old female infant born to non-consanguineous parents presents for routine postnatal screening. On examination, there is a positive Barlow test on the left hip with a palpable clunk on adduction. The right hip is normal. Ultrasound of the left hip shows a Graf Type IIb acetabulum. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 14-month-old boy is brought to the orthopedic clinic with a 3-month history of limp and left groin pain. His mother reports he was born breech and was not screened for hip dysplasia in infancy. On examination, the left hip shows 20° of abduction (compared to 60° on the right), positive Trendelenburg sign, and internal rotation is limited to 10°. Plain radiographs show a shallow acetabulum (acetabular index 35°), lateral displacement of the femoral head, and delayed ossification of the femoral head epiphysis. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
A 3-month-old girl born to non-consanguineous parents is screened for hip dysplasia. On examination, she has a positive Barlow test but a negative Ortolani test. Her mother asks what distinguishes developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) from hip dislocation. Which clinical finding is the best discriminator between a dislocatable hip and a truly dislocated hip?
An 8-month-old boy is referred for suspected developmental dysplasia of the hip. Clinical examination shows limited hip abduction and positive Galeazzi sign. The treating physician wants to confirm the diagnosis and assess acetabular coverage. Which is the most appropriate investigation?
Regarding the clinical examination and investigation of developmental dysplasia of hip (DDH) in infants, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
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