17 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 62-year-old man with HBsAg-positive cirrhosis and a 2.8 cm HCC nodule (BCLC stage A, no vascular invasion) is not a surgical candidate due to poor hepatic reserve. Which is the preferred drug of choice for locoregional therapy bridging to transplantation?
A 58-year-old man with cirrhosis (Child-Pugh B) and a 3.5 cm solitary hepatocellular carcinoma in the right lobe, without vascular invasion or extrahepatic metastases, presents for treatment planning. Which is the drug of choice for systemic therapy if he is not a candidate for curative resection or transplantation?
Regarding the molecular pathogenesis and genetic alterations in hepatocellular carcinoma, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
A 58-year-old man with cirrhosis secondary to chronic hepatitis B presents with a 3 cm solitary nodule in the liver on imaging. Regarding the diagnostic criteria and pathological features of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), all of the following are true EXCEPT:
A 62-year-old woman with Child-Pugh class B cirrhosis due to hepatitis C presents with right upper quadrant pain and weight loss. Serum AFP is markedly elevated at 1200 ng/mL. Ultrasound shows a heterogeneous mass in the liver. Which investigation is the most specific for confirming hepatocellular carcinoma and assessing vascular invasion?
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