13 MCQs in Surgery for NEET PG
A 58-year-old multiparous woman is evaluated for a small, firm, tender lump in the right groin below the inguinal ligament. Ultrasound confirms a 1.5 cm hernia sac in the femoral canal with no signs of obstruction. She is otherwise asymptomatic and asks whether she needs surgery now or can wait. What is the most appropriate management?
A 62-year-old woman presents with a small, tender swelling below the inguinal ligament in the medial thigh. On examination, the mass is firm, irreducible, and tender. Clinical examination suggests femoral hernia. Which investigation is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis and assess for bowel obstruction?
A 58-year-old woman is found to have an asymptomatic femoral hernia on routine physical examination during a health check-up. The hernia is small (approximately 1.5 cm), easily reducible, and there are no signs of incarceration. She has no significant comorbidities and is keen to avoid surgery. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 62-year-old woman presents with a tender swelling in the upper medial thigh below the inguinal ligament. On examination, the swelling is firm, irreducible, and tender. Which clinical feature most reliably distinguishes this femoral hernia from an inguinal hernia in this patient?
What is the primary reason femoral hernias carry a higher risk of strangulation compared to inguinal hernias?
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