Inguinal Hernia

A 58-year-old man with a 3-year history of right inguinal hernia presents for elective repair. Intraoperatively, the surgeon notes that the hernia sac originates medial to the inferior epigastric vessels and bulges through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal without traversing the internal ring. Which finding would best distinguish this hernia from the more common type in this age group?

A 52-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of a painless swelling in the right groin that increases on standing and coughing. On examination, a bulge is palpable above the medial inguinal ligament. The clinical diagnosis of indirect inguinal hernia is suspected. Which investigation is the gold standard for confirming the diagnosis in this patient?

A 38-year-old woman is evaluated for recurrent right inguinal hernia 2 years after open mesh repair. She has no acute symptoms but wishes to understand the anatomy before re-operation. Which investigation is most appropriate to assess the mesh position, any mesh-related complications, and the detailed anatomy of the abdominal wall for surgical planning?

A 28-year-old man presents with acute onset severe pain in the right groin with a tense, irreducible swelling. He reports a history of a painless groin swelling for 2 years that he had ignored. On examination, the swelling is tender, firm, and non-transilluminant. The overlying skin shows erythema. His temperature is 37.8°C. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A 52-year-old man with a 3-year history of right inguinal hernia presents for elective repair. During preoperative assessment, all of the following are established indications or advantages of laparoscopic/TEP repair over open Lichtenstein repair EXCEPT: