15 MCQs in Surgery for NEET PG
A 72-year-old man with a long history of chronic constipation presents with acute onset of abdominal pain, distension, and inability to pass stool or flatus for 2 days. On examination, he is afebrile, BP 130/80, with a markedly distended abdomen. Abdominal X-ray shows a hugely dilated sigmoid colon with a characteristic "coffee-bean" or "omega" configuration. The transition point is at the rectosigmoid junction. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 58-year-old man from rural India presents with a 3-day history of colicky abdominal pain, abdominal distension, and absolute constipation. On examination, his abdomen is distended with visible peristaltic waves. Bowel sounds are high-pitched and tinkling. Plain abdominal X-ray shows multiple dilated small bowel loops with air–fluid levels in a "staircase" pattern, and the large bowel is collapsed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 58-year-old man with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents with acute onset abdominal pain, vomiting, and abdominal distension. Imaging reveals small bowel obstruction. What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction in this clinical context?
A 72-year-old woman presents with progressive abdominal distension, constipation, and colicky pain. Imaging confirms large bowel obstruction. What is the most common site of large bowel obstruction in India?
A 35-year-old woman with a history of three prior abdominal surgeries presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and distension. Regarding the pathophysiology and clinical features of adhesive small bowel obstruction, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
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