A 28-year-old professional footballer sustains a non-contact injury to his right knee during a match. He experiences immediate onset of severe pain, audible 'pop', and rapid swelling within 2 hours. On examination, positive Lachman test (at 30° flexion) and positive anterior drawer test (at 90° flexion), but negative pivot shift test. MRI reveals complete tear of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) with intact posterolateral corner. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management approach for this athlete aiming to return to competitive sport?