A 68-year-old man with a 3-year history of atrial fibrillation (AF) on warfarin (INR 2.5) presents to the emergency department with acute onset chest pain and dyspnea. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Troponin I is elevated at 2.8 ng/mL. He is diagnosed with acute inferior wall MI. The cardiologist plans urgent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate antiplatelet strategy?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.