A 32-year-old man with newly diagnosed HIV-1 infection (CD4 count 350 cells/μL, viral load 150,000 copies/mL) and no prior antiretroviral therapy presents for initiation of combination antiretroviral therapy. He has normal renal and hepatic function and no comorbidities. According to current WHO and Indian guidelines, what is the preferred first-line integrase inhibitor-based regimen?