A 28-year-old man with HIV/AIDS (CD4 count 45 cells/µL) presents with a 5-day history of painful vesicular lesions on the genitals and perirectal area. Viral culture and PCR confirm herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2). He is currently on antiretroviral therapy. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.