A 52-year-old man from Mumbai presents with acute-onset diplopia and vertigo. On neurological examination, he has ipsilateral abducens nerve (CN VI) palsy, ipsilateral facial nerve (CN VII) palsy, and contralateral hemiparesis affecting the arm and leg. Sensation is intact. MRI shows an acute infarct in the ventral mid-pons. Which of the following best explains the ipsilateral CN VI and CN VII palsies in this patient?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.