A 62-year-old man from Mumbai presents with acute onset of bilateral ptosis, bilateral ophthalmoplegia (CN III palsy), and preserved sensation but weakness of the right arm and leg. MRI shows an acute infarct in the ventromedial midbrain. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.