A 45-year-old obese diabetic male presents with an itchy, erythematous rash in his groin folds. Examination reveals well-demarcated erythematous plaques with maceration and satellite papules and pustules at the periphery. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

The key features in this clinical scenario are the intertriginous location (groin folds), maceration, and especially the presence of satellite papules and pustules at the periphery of the main lesion. These 'satellite lesions' are highly characteristic and pathognomonic for candidal intertrigo. Tinea cruris (dermatophytosis) typically presents with an active, raised, scaly border but lacks satellite lesions. Erythrasma, caused by *Corynebacterium minutissimum*, appears as reddish-brown patches with fine scales and fluoresces coral-red under Wood's lamp. Psoriasis inversa presents as well-demarcated erythematous plaques without scale in intertriginous areas, but does not typically show maceration or satellite lesions.