A 42-year-old woman with newly diagnosed hypertension is started on verapamil for blood pressure control. One week later, she presents with severe bradycardia (HR 38 bpm), hypotension (BP 88/56 mmHg), and syncope. ECG shows a prolonged PR interval (280 ms) and first-degree atrioventricular block. She denies chest pain or dyspnea. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?
See the options, answer & explanation
Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.