A 52-year-old woman from urban Delhi presents with a 3-year history of hypertension (currently 156/98 mmHg on no treatment). She works as an accountant, is sedentary, and reports high occupational stress. BMI is 28.5 kg/m². She denies smoking and alcohol. Fasting lipid profile: total cholesterol 198 mg/dL, LDL 125 mg/dL, HDL 38 mg/dL, triglycerides 165 mg/dL. Fasting glucose 102 mg/dL. She has no family history of premature CAD. According to Indian CVD epidemiology and the concept of absolute cardiovascular risk, what is the PRIMARY reason this patient's CVD risk is substantially higher than a normotensive woman of the same age and BMI?