A 38-year-old woman from rural Maharashtra presents to the gynaecology clinic for routine screening. She is married at age 18, has 3 children, and reports no abnormal vaginal discharge or postcoital bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. On speculum examination, the cervix appears normal. Pap smear is performed and the report shows "Atypical Squamous Cells of Undetermined Significance (ASCUS)." HPV testing is positive for high-risk HPV-16. What is the most appropriate next step in management?