A 42-year-old woman from Delhi presents with postmenopausal bleeding for 3 months. On examination, a 4 cm friable, bleeding cervical mass is noted. Pap smear shows HSIL (High-Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion). HPV testing is positive for HPV-16. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
See the options, answer & explanation
Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.