A 42-year-old woman from rural Maharashtra presents with postcoital bleeding and vaginal discharge for 3 months. She is a multipara (G5P5) with menarche at age 13 and first sexual intercourse at age 16. On speculum examination, a friable, bleeding mass is seen on the cervix. Pap smear shows atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). HPV testing is positive for HPV-16. Colposcopy-directed cervical biopsy reveals invasive squamous cell carcinoma with keratinization. Which of the following HPV-related mechanisms is MOST directly responsible for malignant transformation in this patient?