A 68-year-old man with newly diagnosed pancreatic cancer presents with sudden onset of thrombosis in multiple vascular beds (DVT, pulmonary embolism, and digital gangrene). Coagulation studies show prolonged PT/INR, prolonged aPTT, low fibrinogen, and elevated D-dimer. What is the most common underlying mechanism responsible for this prothrombotic state?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.