A 35-year-old woman (G4P3L3, 1 abortion) attends the outpatient clinic requesting permanent contraception. She has completed her family and has no medical contraindications. On examination, she is normotensive, non-obese (BMI 23 kg/m²), and has no pelvic pathology. She is undecided between tubal ligation and copper intrauterine device (IUCD). What is the most appropriate next step in management?