A 68-year-old male smoker presents with painless gross hematuria. Cystoscopy reveals a papillary bladder tumor with a reddish vascular base (marked **B** in the diagram) and surrounding normal mucosa. Biopsies confirm urothelial carcinoma limited to the lamina propria (T1). The reddish vascular appearance of the base reflects the tumor's rich neovascularization and aggressive biology. Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management for this high-risk non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer?