A 48-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes (HbA1c 10.1%) undergoes routine fundoscopy during her annual checkup. Examination reveals cotton-wool spots, intraretinal microvascular abnormalities (IRMA), venous beading in two quadrants, and no hard exudates or macular involvement. Visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes. What is the most appropriate next step in management?