A 28-year-old man from Delhi presents with purulent urethral discharge and dysuria for 3 days. On examination, there is urethral meatus inflammation and a positive urethral smear showing gram-negative intracellular diplococci. He is otherwise healthy with no systemic symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
See the options, answer & explanation
Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.