A 72-year-old woman on warfarin for atrial fibrillation (INR 4.2 today) presents with acute-onset left-sided weakness and speech difficulty. CT head shows a 45 mL right frontal lobe hemorrhage with 8 mm midline shift. Her blood pressure is 185/105 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management step?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.