A 65-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation (not on anticoagulation) presents with acute left-sided weakness and aphasia. CT head shows a right-sided lobar hemorrhage (35 mL) without intraventricular extension or midline shift. GCS is 15, BP is 165/95 mmHg. What is the most appropriate immediate next step?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.