A 28-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with abnormal vaginal bleeding and postcoital bleeding for 3 months. She is sexually active with a single partner for the past 5 years. On speculum examination, a friable, bleeding cervical lesion is noted. Pap smear shows atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). HPV testing is positive for high-risk HPV-16. Colposcopy-directed cervical biopsy reveals cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 2 (CIN 2). Which HPV type is most likely responsible for this lesion, and what is the mechanism by which it promotes malignant transformation?