A 28-year-old woman from Delhi presents with multiple genital warts of 6 months duration. She is asymptomatic and has no history of abnormal Pap smears. On examination, she has visible condylomata acuminata on the vulva. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.