A 68-year-old man with severe COPD and heart failure presents with a minimally displaced intracapsular neck of femur fracture (Garden II) sustained 8 hours ago. He is deemed unfit for surgery due to poor cardiopulmonary reserve. His pain is controlled with analgesics and he is hemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.