NPCDCS — NCD Program MCQ — NEET PG Practice Question | NEETPGAI
NPCDCS — NCD Program
medium
users PSM
A 52-year-old man with a 10-year history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents to a primary health centre in rural Maharashtra. His BP is 148/92 mmHg and fasting blood sugar is 156 mg/dL. He has no symptoms of angina or dyspnea. On examination, he has no signs of end-organ damage. As per NPCDCS guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
See the options, answer & explanation
Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.