A 28-year-old woman with primary infertility for 2 years presents for evaluation. Her menstrual cycles are regular (28 days), and general examination is normal. Her BMI is 22 kg/m². Husband's semen analysis is normal. Hysterosalpingography shows patent tubes bilaterally. Serum progesterone on day 21 of the cycle is 18 ng/mL. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

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