A 28-year-old woman with a history of recurrent infections and poor wound healing presents with oral candidiasis and a chronic non-healing leg ulcer. Laboratory workup reveals elevated NADP⁺ levels and reduced NADPH. Genetic testing confirms chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) due to NADPH oxidase deficiency. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.