A 62-year-old man with chronic kidney disease (eGFR 25 mL/min/1.73m²) and atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin for stroke prevention. His INR after 5 days is 8.2 (target 2–3). He is asymptomatic with no bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.