A 58-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic for routine eye examination. He is asymptomatic and denies any visual complaints. On examination, intraocular pressure (IOP) is 24 mmHg in both eyes (normal <21 mmHg). Gonioscopy reveals an open angle with normal trabecular meshwork appearance. Optic disc examination shows a vertical cup-to-disc ratio of 0.7 with inferior neuroretinal rim thinning and a flame-shaped hemorrhage at the disc margin. Automated perimetry shows a superior arcuate scotoma. What is the most appropriate next step in management?