A 52-year-old man from Delhi presents to the emergency department with acute onset severe chest pain and dyspnea. He has a 20-year history of hypertension and is a current smoker. On examination, blood pressure is 165/95 mmHg, heart rate 110/min, and respiratory rate 24/min. ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Cardiac troponin I is elevated at 2.8 ng/mL (normal <0.04). He receives aspirin, clopidogrel, and is taken for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) within 90 minutes of symptom onset. Coronary angiography reveals a thrombotic occlusion of the right coronary artery, which is successfully revascularized. Transthoracic echocardiography performed 48 hours later shows hypokinesis of the inferior wall with an ejection fraction of 42%. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiological basis of the wall motion abnormality observed in this patient?