A 24-year-old male cricketer presents with a 6-week history of insidious onset pain in the posterolateral aspect of the right ankle. He reports pain during fast bowling, particularly during the push-off phase. On examination, there is tenderness over the peroneal tendons, and pain is reproduced with resisted eversion and plantarflexion. MRI shows hypotendinosis of the peroneus longus tendon with partial thickness tear at the level of the lateral malleolus. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management for this athlete, considering his desire to return to sport?