A 52-year-old male presents with 3 months of progressive right shoulder pain during overhead activities. Coronal MRI shows the structure marked **A** (supraspinatus tendon) with a full-thickness tear measuring 2.5 cm in anteroposterior dimension, with surrounding edema and mild acromion sclerosis. The patient is moderately active and willing to pursue conservative management initially. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
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