43 MCQs in Dermatology for NEET PG
A 68-year-old Indian man presents with a 3-week history of tense, fluid-filled blisters on the flexural aspects of both forearms and inner thighs. The blisters do not rupture easily and are preceded by urticarial lesions. On examination, there is no oral mucosal involvement. Nikolsky sign is negative. Serum IgG antibodies against BP180 are positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 72-year-old woman from Mumbai presents with a 4-week history of recurrent blisters on the lower abdomen, inner thighs, and axillae. She reports that the blisters are preceded by itchy, red papules and urticarial lesions. Histopathology shows subepidermal blister with eosinophil-rich infiltrate in the dermis. Direct immunofluorescence reveals linear IgG and IgE deposition along the basement membrane zone. She has no significant past medical history and denies any medications. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 68-year-old man presents with tense, fluid-filled bullae on the flexural surfaces of the forearms and inner thighs. Histopathology shows subepidermal blistering with intact basal layer. Which is the most common site of involvement in bullous pemphigoid?
Which is the most common age group affected by bullous pemphigoid?
A 68-year-old man presents with tense, fluid-filled blisters on the flexural surfaces of both forearms and inner thighs for 3 weeks. On examination, the blisters are intact, do not rupture easily, and the surrounding skin is erythematous. Direct immunofluorescence shows linear IgG and C3 deposits along the basement membrane zone. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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