A 47-year-old diabetic man presents with well-demarcated, finely scaled red-brown patches in the inguinal folds and inframammary areas for several months. KOH preparation is negative for hyphae and yeasts. Wood's lamp examination reveals a striking coral-red fluorescence, confirming the diagnosis of erythrasma caused by *Corynebacterium minutissimum*. The structure marked **B** in the diagram represents the most appropriate first-line management for localized disease. Which of the following best describes the rationale for choosing option **B** over the alternatives shown?
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