1 MCQs in Dermatology for NEET PG
A 42-year-old woman of South Asian descent presents with a 2-year history of progressive, asymptomatic hyperpigmented lesions on her forehead, temples, and lateral neck. On examination, she has multiple ill-defined, slate-gray macules as marked **A** in the diagram, predominantly on sun-exposed areas. Dermoscopy reveals pigment incontinence with dermal melanophages. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiological mechanism responsible for the slate-gray coloration seen in the lesion marked **A**?
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