1 MCQs in Dermatology for NEET PG
A 64-year-old woman with MRSA endocarditis develops a tense bullous eruption on day 8 of intravenous vancomycin therapy. Examination reveals tense, fluid-filled bullae arranged in characteristic annular and polycyclic plaques with new lesions forming at the periphery of older lesions — producing a "string of pearls" appearance. Lesions favor the trunk, buttocks, and groin, with mucosal involvement of the oral cavity. Punch biopsy shows a subepidermal blister with neutrophil-predominant infiltrate. Direct immunofluorescence of perilesional skin is shown in the diagram at **B**. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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