1 MCQs in Dermatology for NEET PG
A 30-year-old man with HIV on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole prophylaxis for 3 weeks presents with fever, severe oral erosions preventing oral intake, purulent conjunctivitis with photophobia, painful genital ulcers, and atypical targetoid lesions with dusky centres on the trunk. Epidermal detachment is approximately 6% BSA. Histology confirms full-thickness keratinocyte apoptosis with subepidermal split and sparse dermal infiltrate, consistent with Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS). Which of the following management approaches best represents the standard of care for this patient, as indicated by **B** in the diagram?
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