1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 28-year-old woman on combined oral contraceptives presents with a 3-day history of progressive headache, focal left-sided weakness, and a seizure. MRI brain with post-contrast imaging is shown. The structure marked **A** demonstrates a triangular filling defect with peripheral enhancement of the dural walls. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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