1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 28-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of focal seizures. MRI brain shows a T2/FLAIR hyperintense lesion in the left frontal lobe with indistinct margins and minimal contrast enhancement, as marked **A** in the diagram. Histopathology confirms diffuse astrocytoma with IDH mutation and no CDKN2A/B homozygous deletion. The lesion measures 4 cm and gross total resection is achieved without neurological compromise. Based on WHO 2021 CNS classification and current risk stratification, which of the following is the most appropriate management?
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