1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 42-year-old Indian woman with a 20-year history of recurrent epistaxis and mucocutaneous telangiectasias on her lips and fingers presents with progressive dyspnea and orthodeoxia. Contrast bubble echocardiography confirms an intrapulmonary shunt. CT pulmonary angiography (marked **A** in the diagram) reveals a 4 mm feeding artery with direct communication to a draining pulmonary vein. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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