1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute-onset dyspnea, hypotension (BP 88/56 mmHg), and elevated JVP. Bedside echocardiography in the subxiphoid long-axis view shows a large pericardial effusion with a dilated IVC measuring 3.2 cm that demonstrates less than 50 percent inspiratory collapse, as marked **A** in the diagram. Right atrial systolic collapse is also noted. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of IVC plethora in this clinical scenario?
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